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Posted by M3turbo:
And what did I write.......%.


I guess you are missing the point here.

Example:

A) I make a flip 1 million times and end with no more than 1% difference.

B) I make a flip 10 million times and end with no more than 0,5% difference.

So im closer to the 50/50 in try B. But in absolute numbers i can stray further away from the middle. 25.000 for try B, only 5.000 for try A.

     
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Yes I was missing your point, but I don't see it change anything you still get closer to the correct winning procent the more times you do it Confused

     
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Posted by M3turbo:
Yes I was missing your point, but I don't see it change anything you still get closer to the correct winning procent the more times you do it Confused


Yep. But it is the sheer amount of trys that does it. There is no need for a "bad run" to level out an earlier good run. (Like you pointed out in the debate in this thread)

     
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Yes I partly agree, but I don't think I said you needed negative variance to even out positive variance but that it would in the long run. It is in the sheer amount of trys we find the variance that we speak of.

     
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BankrollMob Forum » Hand Histories » Last month is sick!

 
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